Idaho CDL Driving Laws Practice Test 2

Question 1

What is the required alcohol concentration result for a return-to-duty alcohol test after engaging in prohibited alcohol conduct?

Accepted Answer

Less than 0.02.

Answer

Exactly 0.00.

Answer

Less than 0.04.

Question 2

What is the required result for a return-to-duty controlled substance test after engaging in prohibited controlled substance conduct?

Accepted Answer

A verified negative result.

Answer

A positive result with a doctor's note.

Answer

A diluted sample.

Question 3

How many unannounced follow-up tests are required in the first 12 months after a driver returns to duty following a drug or alcohol violation?

Accepted Answer

At least 6 tests.

Answer

At least 12 tests.

Answer

At least 3 tests.

Question 4

What is the requirement for laboratories used for urine specimen testing under DOT regulations?

Accepted Answer

They must be certified by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.

Answer

Any lab can be used if it has a medical director.

Answer

They must be state-certified.

Question 5

What is the primary role of a Medical Review Officer (MRO)?

Accepted Answer

To review, interpret, and report test results, contacting the driver for legitimate explanations before verifying positive results.

Answer

To conduct drug tests.

Answer

To provide substance abuse counseling.

Question 6

What is the purpose of "split samples" in urine drug testing?

Accepted Answer

To provide a portion of the specimen for retesting at a different certified lab if the primary sample is confirmed positive.

Answer

To allow for a second test at the same lab.

Answer

To be used for random testing only.

Question 7

How many "blind samples" must companies or consortiums submit for every 100 samples, up to a maximum per quarter?

Accepted Answer

Three blind samples.

Answer

One blind sample.

Answer

Ten blind samples.

Question 8

For companies with more than 2,000 drivers, what percentage of blind samples submitted each quarter must be tainted with drugs?

Accepted Answer

20%

Answer

10%

Answer

50%

Question 9

How long must negative drug test results be kept by companies?

Accepted Answer

For at least 12 months.

Answer

For at least 6 months.

Answer

For at least 2 years.

Question 10

How long must collection process and training records related to drug and alcohol testing be kept?

Accepted Answer

At least 2 years.

Answer

At least 5 years.

Answer

At least 1 year.

Question 11

What is the consequence for a driver who refuses a required DOT drug or alcohol test?

Accepted Answer

A one-year disqualification from operating a commercial vehicle if it's a post-accident test after a fatal accident.

Answer

Mandatory re-training only.

Answer

A warning letter.

Question 12

What is the primary purpose of Hours of Service (HOS) regulations?

Accepted Answer

To help ensure that drivers stay awake and alert by limiting driving and on-duty time and specifying rest periods.

Answer

To reduce fuel consumption.

Answer

To ensure drivers complete deliveries quickly.

Question 13

What is the maximum driving limit for property-carrying drivers after 10 consecutive hours off duty?

Accepted Answer

11 hours.

Answer

8 hours.

Answer

14 hours.

Question 14

What is the maximum consecutive hour limit for property-carrying drivers after coming on duty, following 10 consecutive hours off duty?

Accepted Answer

14 hours.

Answer

11 hours.

Answer

15 hours.

Question 15

What is the requirement for a 30-minute break for property-carrying drivers?

Accepted Answer

Required after 8 cumulative hours of driving time.

Answer

Optional, depending on fatigue.

Answer

Required after 8 consecutive hours on duty.

Question 16

What is the maximum on-duty limit for property-carrying drivers in 7 consecutive days?

Accepted Answer

60 hours.

Answer

70 hours.

Answer

50 hours.

Question 17

How can a driver restart a 7/8 consecutive day on-duty period?

Accepted Answer

After taking 34 or more consecutive hours off duty.

Answer

After taking 24 consecutive hours off duty.

Answer

After taking 48 consecutive hours off duty.

Question 18

What is the sleeper berth provision for property-carrying drivers?

Accepted Answer

Drivers may split their required 10-hour off-duty period into two periods, one at least 2 hours long and the other at least 7 consecutive hours in the sleeper berth, totaling at least 10 hours.

Answer

Drivers must take all 10 hours off-duty in the sleeper berth.

Answer

Drivers must take at least 8 hours in the sleeper berth and can split it into two periods, neither less than 2 hours.

Question 19

How much can the 11-hour maximum driving limit and 14-hour driving window be extended during adverse driving conditions?

Accepted Answer

By up to 2 hours.

Answer

By up to 1 hour.

Answer

By up to 3 hours.

Question 20

What are the criteria for the short-haul exception from HOS requirements?

Accepted Answer

Operating within a 150 air-mile radius of the normal work reporting location and not exceeding a maximum duty period of 14 hours.

Answer

Operating within a 200 air-mile radius and not exceeding a 16-hour duty period.

Answer

Operating within a 100 air-mile radius and not exceeding a 12-hour duty period.

Question 21

What is the primary requirement of the FMCSA ELD mandate?

Accepted Answer

All commercial drivers who maintain records of duty status (RODs) must use an electronic logging device (ELD).

Answer

All commercial drivers must use paper logs.

Answer

All commercial vehicles must have GPS tracking.

Question 22

What is the main purpose of the ELD mandate?

Accepted Answer

To create an easier, more accurate way to track and manage RODs, with the ultimate goal of increasing safety.

Answer

To increase fuel efficiency.

Answer

To reduce the number of roadside inspections.

Question 23

Which of the following drivers is exempt from the ELD mandate?

Accepted Answer

Drivers who are required to keep RODs for eight days or less within any 30-day period.

Answer

Drivers who transport passengers.

Answer

Drivers of vehicles manufactured after the year 2000.

Question 24

What is a penalty for commercial drivers who fail to comply with the ELD mandate?

Accepted Answer

Possible fines and vehicles being put out of service.

Answer

Mandatory re-training only.

Answer

A warning letter.

Question 25

What must a driver do if an ELD malfunctions?

Accepted Answer

Notify the motor carrier in writing within 24 hours of the malfunction.

Answer

Attempt to fix the ELD themselves.

Answer

Continue driving until the end of their shift.

Question 26

What is the federal maximum weight limit for most commercial trucks on interstate highways?

Accepted Answer

80,000 pounds.

Answer

60,000 pounds.

Answer

100,000 pounds.

Question 27

What is the general maximum length limit for CMVs as set by the FMCSA?

Accepted Answer

53 feet.

Answer

48 feet.

Answer

60 feet.

Question 28

What is the general maximum height limit for CMVs as set by the FMCSA?

Accepted Answer

13.5 feet.

Answer

14 feet.

Answer

12 feet.

Question 29

What is the general maximum width limit for CMVs as set by the FMCSA?

Accepted Answer

8.5 feet.

Answer

9 feet.

Answer

8 feet.

Question 30

Do weight and size restrictions for CMVs vary by state?

Accepted Answer

Yes, some states may have stricter or more lenient restrictions.

Answer

Only for hazardous materials.

Answer

No, they are uniform across all states.

Question 31

What is the Gross Vehicle Weight Rating (GVWR)?

Accepted Answer

The maximum allowable total weight of the truck when fully loaded, including the vehicle itself, fuel, cargo, passengers, and equipment.

Answer

The weight of the vehicle without cargo.

Answer

The weight of the cargo only.

Question 32

What is the Gross Axle Weight Rating (GAWR)?

Accepted Answer

The maximum weight that can be placed on a single axle.

Answer

The total weight of the vehicle and its cargo.

Answer

The weight of the vehicle's engine.

Question 33

What is the primary reason for adhering to vehicle weight limits?

Accepted Answer

To ensure safe, responsible, and sustainable operation and avoid fines.

Answer

To reduce fuel consumption.

Answer

To avoid traffic delays.

Question 34

What is the "60/40 Rule" for safer cargo loading?

Accepted Answer

60% of the cargo should be placed over the front half of the trailer, 40% in the rear.

Answer

60% of the cargo should be placed over the rear half of the trailer, 40% in the front.

Answer

60% of the cargo should be placed on the left side, 40% on the right.

Question 35

Where should heavier items be placed when loading cargo?

Accepted Answer

On the bottom and toward the center.

Answer

Towards the rear of the trailer.

Answer

On top of lighter items.

Question 36

What is the primary source of Hazardous Material Regulations (HMR)?

Accepted Answer

Parts 100-185 of Title 49: Transportation, of the Code of Federal Regulations.

Answer

State Department of Transportation manuals.

Answer

OSHA guidelines.

Question 37

What is required for a driver to get a hazardous materials endorsement on a CDL?

Accepted Answer

Passing a written test about transporting hazardous materials.

Answer

Passing a driving test with hazardous materials.

Answer

Completing a first-aid course.

Question 38

How often must drivers transporting hazardous materials be trained in emergency procedures according to 49 CFR Parts 171-180?

Accepted Answer

Every three years.

Answer

Every two years.

Answer

Annually.

Question 39

What is a driver's responsibility regarding hazardous shipments' documentation?

Accepted Answer

To keep hazardous materials shipping papers and emergency response information within reach.

Answer

To keep them in a locked compartment.

Answer

To mail them to the destination in advance.

Question 40

What is a general loading requirement for hazardous chemicals related to tools?

Accepted Answer

Use caution with loading tools, avoiding any that might damage containers or packaging, such as hooks.

Answer

Use any tool that speeds up loading.

Answer

Only use automated loading tools.

Idaho CDL Driving Laws Practice Test 2

Explanation